'AND HE SHALL TAKE CARE THAT ALL THE LAWS BE FAITHFULLY EXECUTED"
-United States Constitution, Article 2, Section 3
The section of the Constitution regarding the powers of the President can be interpreted pretty broadly, but you would have to stray awfully far off the reservation to convince yourself that President Obama has acted constitutionally in waiving both the employer and now the individual mandates with a wave of his hand. Clearly, he wanted no part of having to approach Congress, particularly after the acrimony of the shutdown, and ask (beg) them to legally amend PPACA. That would have been too much. But is what he has done legal? Can the President take a law that has been passed by both houses of Congress and signed by him and simply brush it aside because it is politically inconvenient to have it legally amended? Where is George Orwell when you need him?
